It seems as though Le’Veon Bell doesn’t want to wait too long to see the New York Jets again.
Just days after being released by the team — ending a tumultuous relationship with head coach Adam Gase — Bell has reportedly narrowed his free-agency options down to three teams.
And they all just so happen to be the Jets’ next three opponents.
ESPN’s Jeremy Fowler reported on Thursday morning that Bell is deciding between the Miami Dolphins, Buffalo Bills, and Kansas City Chiefs. His choice is expected to come soon.
Bell was released by the Jets on Tuesday night after playing just 17 games over portions of two seasons with the team, which originally signed him to a four-year, $52.5 million contract before the 2019 season.
While Bell bet on himself by holding out the entire 2018 season in search of a new contract with the Pittsburgh Steelers and coming in as one of the best running backs in football, he was a shell of his former self with the Jets.
He averaged just 3.3 yards per carry with New York while he was underutilized by Gase, and placed behind a struggling offensive line within an offense that lacked any sort of playmaking talent to take the opposition’s onus off him.
With the Steelers, he was considered an elite dual-threat back, averaging almost 130 total yards per game.
In the right system, there is an obvious belief that the 28-year-old can reclaim that level of play that he had over five years in Pittsburgh — which would be an ultimate slap to the face of a Jets organization that continues to bungle any big-time move it makes.
It will only add further salt to the wound if they immediately see Bell within the next three weeks.
